tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post5294130222876377485..comments2024-01-04T04:11:55.717+02:00Comments on Dienekes’ Anthropology Blog: Genetic structure of West EurasiansDienekeshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02082684850093948970noreply@blogger.comBlogger51125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-45336512458265453972016-05-13T01:30:17.567+03:002016-05-13T01:30:17.567+03:00I estimate that the least African admixed populati...I estimate that the least African admixed populations come from Tunisia, North Morrocco, and Northern Algeria (e.g, Riffians, Kabyles, and other Middle Atlas Berbers who apparently were mostly unaffected by the ancient Tropical African admixture) and Libya and Northern Egypt (e.g, Copts, who are moreso connected to the Middle East than Maghrebis).LaMar McNeilhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/18134069905584971350noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-25734270883024660232016-05-13T01:22:30.506+03:002016-05-13T01:22:30.506+03:00With this study, I'd say that my hypothesis is...With this study, I'd say that my hypothesis is correct. Most North Africans are generally around 15-25% Tropical African, with the even more (around 35%) coming from Berber groups such as Mozabite and Saharawi peoples and South Morocco (and probably Southern Egypt). Secondly, much of this Tropical African admixture is ancient, and not due to recent neolithic migrations or slavery (except in South Morrocans). This is evident due to the fact that much of the Tropical African component is absorbed by the North African component upon its arrival, which I have observed in countless other studies before this. In Egyptians, the Tropical African ancestry is mostly genetically similar to East African, meaning it is mostly due to ancient interactions with Northeast Africans like Ethiopians or the Sudanese.LaMar McNeilhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/18134069905584971350noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-62857209035914329232012-08-05T22:59:13.334+03:002012-08-05T22:59:13.334+03:00There's no way the % of Sub-Saharan in Souther...There's no way the % of Sub-Saharan in Southern Italians are that high if Sicilians aren't considered. I'm wondering why you included Sardinians on their own, but not Sicilians as Sicilians have a different genetic make-up than mainland Italians. I also have doubts about the sub-Saharan admixture being so high in Italians and absent in the rest of Europe. That doesn't make sense at all. Could you explain this if possible? Thanks.Anonymousnoreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-54025414841344565502011-09-11T00:07:46.347+03:002011-09-11T00:07:46.347+03:00Thanks
I must confess I did not see this before p...Thanks<br /><br />I must confess I did not see this before posting : <br /><br />http://dienekes.blogspot.com/2011/09/who-are-anatolian-turks-reappraisal-of.htmlplhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/11231086355757211450noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-80157314121187168352011-09-08T05:35:41.148+03:002011-09-08T05:35:41.148+03:00Turks = Behar et al. (2010) Turks from Republic of...Turks = Behar et al. (2010) Turks from Republic of Turkey<br /><br />Turkish_D =<br /><br />4 Turkish grandparents<br /><br />or<br /><br />Turks + 4 grandparents from Republic of TurkeyDienekeshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02082684850093948970noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-35726543147084365042011-05-25T21:06:19.178+03:002011-05-25T21:06:19.178+03:00quote : "At K=5, a new Mediterranean componen...quote : "At K=5, a new Mediterranean component emerges. This is highly represented in populations to the North, South, and East of the Mediterranean sea.<br /><br /><br /><br />This component is noteworthy for its absence in India and Northeastern Europe. <br /><br /><br />In Northeastern Europe, the Mediterranean component is hardly represented at all, whereas the West/South Asian component, freed of its K=4 Mediterranean associations now makes its appearance. <br /><br />Conversely, in the West Mediterranean, among Basques, Sardinians, Moroccans, and Mozabites the West/South Asian component vanishes to non-existence"<br /><br /><br />So does this Mediterranean component confirms the existence of a "Mediterraean race" as its distribution almost matches perfectly what Coon described.EuroMedhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/18084334081356196591noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-12883908835172236902011-05-02T21:56:01.683+03:002011-05-02T21:56:01.683+03:00If Africa is to humans then India is to western ci...If Africa is to humans then India is to western civilization...bmdriverhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02175936825472291559noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-35786788143215397552011-05-02T16:08:21.879+03:002011-05-02T16:08:21.879+03:00part 2
Thus presence of J2b in India is far earl...part 2 <br /><br />Thus presence of J2b in India is far earlier than in Anatolia, where J2b is seen at the time of Neolithic at 8,600 years back.Another lineage L1, which is a branch of L, is found in India, Iran and West Asia. This finding had prompted some authors to write that L1 is a marker of Neolithic migration to India with Dravidian language, to Mehrgarh and Indus Valley. These authors resurrected the theory of Elamite origin of Dravidian. Sahoo and colleagues (2006) studied the Indian Y chromosomallineages and found that R1a, L1, F and H are of Indian origin.Not only Sahoo’s but all recent works have completely ruled out the possibility that L1 is a marker of West Asian origin of Dravidian speaking people of India. Current opinion is that L1 is of Indian origin and is well distributed in castes and tribes of both north and south India.WhileIndian lineages qualify to be original of India, the West Asian and European lineages qualifyto be immigrants to their present country, barring a few exceptions. Although frequency of Y-haplogroup J2, which is a marker of farming and pottery, increasesbeyond the northwest boundaries of India, its slightly lower frequency in India compared toIran, Iraq or Turkey is not because it arrived into India as a result of some invasion fromWest Asia, but because a large number of Y-chromosomal haplogroups like R1a, R2, J2, L, O,C, F*, H exist in India side by side, which evolved in India over last 70,000 years. Hence theirrelative frequency becomes low (the total cannot exceed 100 percent).The frequency of J2 increases in Tajikistan, Iran, Iraq and Turkey because of founder effect of an arriving population in a sparsely populated area.bmdriverhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02175936825472291559noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-63720382723478856022011-05-02T01:15:18.707+03:002011-05-02T01:15:18.707+03:00mr bmdriver
you are right about indian civilizatio...mr bmdriver<br />you are right about indian civilization+the inaccuracy of the aryan invasion theory, however the lack of typical indian mt DNA in europe looks problematic if we would stick to the out of india theory.Anonymousnoreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-28629000173001582412011-05-02T00:39:09.659+03:002011-05-02T00:39:09.659+03:00"In summary Indians populated central Asia an..."In summary Indians populated central Asia and Europe. The Aryan theory which was created in one of the most racist times of european history during the military expansion and occupation of India itself. Indians stated themselves that it was THEY who left and set up parallel civilizations is now pretty much confirmed, the Indian Aryans invaded Europe, bringing them indian civilization."<br /><br />Ummm, I don't see your point in all this. Apart from all your simplifications you said that the R gene evolved in India a long time ago and spread out from India. The timing meant it was before relatively recent cultural achievements including agriculture and use of horses and chariots. <br /><br />If you arguing some Indian racial theory of "parallel civilizations" you should know that whether they originally "came from" India or not most the highly intellectual cultures of the Caucasoids such as the Babylonians, Hittites, Greeks, Romans, Germans, and British and more related to each other than they are to the Indians. <br /><br />The only thing I've seen you argue is that Africa is to humans as India is to Caucasians...princenuadhahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02165977957244158593noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-59474643409434475852011-05-01T16:41:00.170+03:002011-05-01T16:41:00.170+03:00Dear Dienekes;
Did you choose your framing-populat...Dear Dienekes;<br />Did you choose your framing-population member individuals on the basis of 'most-modal' admixture (%)? If so, would you please identify them? Thanks!tt9jhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/07031639239610720399noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-16112988722497253262011-05-01T15:24:45.158+03:002011-05-01T15:24:45.158+03:00To peitrk
Study of human DNAs finally rule out an...To peitrk<br /><br />Study of human DNAs finally rule out any Aryan arrival from the Central Asia into India. Rather the suggested Aryan gene R1a (M17) evolved and migrated out from India about 16,000 to 14,000 years back crossing through Central Asia ultimately reaching Pontic-Caspian area and Russia (Sahoo, 2006; Sengupta, 2006; Trivedi, 2008; Underhill, 2009). Study of West Asian genes also suggests that that there was a human migration from India to West Asia, indicated by presence of Indian genes in the West Asian population (Y-DNA HGs: F*, L1, H (M-69), K2, C5, C*, R1a (M-17). On the other hand West Asian genes (Y-DNA: J1, G, I and R1b3) are not found in India, ruling out migration from West Asia to India. L1, which was earlier suggested to be a marker of migration of Dravidian speakers from Elam region of West Asia, has now been confirmed to be of Indian origin from where it migrated to Iran and West Asia (Sengupta, 2006; Sahoo, 2006).<br /><br />Genetic diversity is a marker of age of a haplogroup in any area. HG J2 exhibits a genetic diversity of 0.702 and lineage diversity of 0.999 in India (Trivedi et al 2008).<br /><br />This means an early settlement and insidious origin of J2 in India.<br /><br />Moreover, there are other DNA lineages found in good numbers in West Asia like R1*, R1b3, J*, J2f, I, G and E which are in total more than 53% population of west Asia. These are virtually absent from India (Sahoo, p. 844). Had people migrated from West Asia to India, these haplogroups would also have arrived into India. This evidence proves that J2 did not arrive from West Asia, because no lineage can ever migrate without other lineages also migrating along with it from the place of origin or expansion. On the other hand nearly all of the Indian male lineages like F*, L1, H (M-69), K2, C5, C*, R1a (M-17) etc. are found in West Asia, proving a definite Indian migration to West Asia. The HIV protective gene, which is found in West Asia, and Central Asia too, is absent from India (Majumder and Dey, 2001). Thus on no account, any migration from West Asia to India can be supported.<br /><br />Mitochondrial DNA hg T is found in Europe.See clan of Tara in the link below:<br /><br />http://www.oxfordancestors.com/content/view/35/55/<br /><br />These East Asia specific markers are in India too. The most likely explanation is that they originated in India and migrated to both East and West. The migration of these DNAs were more to East, hence they became known as East Asia specific markers.<br /><br />In summary Indians populated central Asia and Europe. The Aryan theory which was created in one of the most racist times of european history during the military expansion and occupation of India itself. Indians stated themselves that it was THEY who left and set up parallel civilizations is now pretty much confirmed, the Indian Aryans invaded Europe, bringing them indian civilization. More evidence also supports the cultivation and domestication of plants and animals independent of any west Asian origins,the Ganges Plain was one of the first centers of farming which spread to east and west. Aryans are Indians.bmdriverhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02175936825472291559noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-53710660053485022412011-04-28T12:35:46.615+03:002011-04-28T12:35:46.615+03:00Mikej2,
IMHO this East Asia connection is pure fai...Mikej2,<br /><i>IMHO this East Asia connection is pure faily tale when looking to the known history.</i><br /><br />I wouldn't go that far. You don't need "Chinese" populations - only populations from central Asia that had contact with far Eastern populations. This may have happened three or four times since LGM. The advanced, younger Dryas Ahrensburg culture may have been the first in a long succession of cultures with partial inflow from the east, today also expressed in east Asian haplotypes in addition to autosomal signatures in Scandinavia.eurologisthttps://www.blogger.com/profile/03440019181278830033noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-79043965999809688232011-04-27T19:14:03.916+03:002011-04-27T19:14:03.916+03:00At K=3, we observe the emergence West Eurasian, Su...At K=3, we observe the emergence West Eurasian, Sub-Saharan, and East/South Asian ancestry in west eurasian people.<br /><br /><br />It is interesting to note that 39.8% of the Indian_D sample is assigned to the E/S Asian component. So E asian branched off with 39% of Indian ancestry.<br /><br />At K=4 Caucasoid group has established firmly centered in Europe and distance between south Asia and sub sahara is clearly established.<br /><br />At k=5 we can clearly see there is no back migration from Mediterranean to south Asia.<br /><br />At K=6, a North African component emerges. Contrary to the belief of Muslim contact with africa North/Sub-Saharan African contributed to more Europe than Near East.<br /><br /><br />At K=7, a Southwest Asian component emerges which is highest in Arabia and East Africa. It is clear that this is the main Caucasoid component present in East Africa.vanishes to non-existence in the Northern fringe of Europe, in the British Isles, Scandinavia, and among the Finns and Lithuanians. <br /><br />Another interesting aspect of its distribution is its presence in Pakistan but not India. Perhaps, in this case, it reflects historical contacts between the Islamic Near East and parts of South Asia.<br /><br />Aryan Invasaion theory needs to be revisited. or Kurgan theory need to be strengthened. this makes Anatolian theory very week.<br /><br />At K=8 Now, the South Asian component appears, which swallows up most of the E/S Asian component that previously linked South with East Asians. This component extends a great way to the Near East and eastern parts of the Caucasus. This is the common ancestry link between West and East eurasia which is clearly from South Aisa.<br /><br />Quite interestingly, the remainder of the Caucasoid component in South Asia that is not absorbed by the new South Asian component seems to be split between the West Asian and North/Central European components, with an absence of the South European component. This clearly shows the contribution of west asia and central asia to Soth asia. Distancce is always criteria. These samples in spread sheet is separated by mere 100 miles for south asia to Central asia.<br /><br />At K=9, we see the emergence of specific Sardinian and Basque components. Normally this is undesirable, why is that ?. Your login seems ridiculous.<br /><br /><br />K=10 is particularly exciting because, for the first time, there is clear evidence of structure in the North/Central European component that can now be split, for the first time, into Northwestern and Northeastern ones. of course<br />Finally Your own words:<br /><br />Indians have a 1.8 NE/NW ratio. In Pakistan this is 6.5, in Uzbeks it is 2.9, and in the North Eurasian_Ra it is 14.2. My conclusion is that a single migration of steppe people from eastern Europe cannot account for the presence of North European-like genes in Asia.<br /><br />I propose that a palimpsest of population movements has brought such elements into the interior of Asia: the migration of the early Indo-Iranians from West Asia or the Balkans with a balanced NE/NW ratio, and, the migration of steppe people from Eastern Europe with a high NE/NW ratio. The latter, did affect much of Asia, but it is in India, where Iranian groups did not penetrate in great numbers the lower ratio of the Indo-Aryans has been best preserved.<br /><br />Aryan Invasion theory gone with the wind. <br /><br />Whoever or what ever the aryan society takes place it is gradual change in south asia. Invasion is hard to prove again.<br /><br />At K=11 NO more cut and paste.South Central Haplohttps://www.blogger.com/profile/00916788636469000041noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-21464452607506910292011-04-27T15:43:55.019+03:002011-04-27T15:43:55.019+03:00Eurologist
"Except for the location. Looking...Eurologist<br /><br />"Except for the location. Looking at more recent pre-historic and historic patterns, a putative W/SW Uralic homeland of Finno-Ugric would likely have had extensive contact with East Asians over the millennia before or during language and population formation."<br /><br />We should however prefer the most obvious explanation. When the "EA"-component is strongest in Northeast Finland and least in SW-Finland and Estonia AND we know that mixing happened between Saamis and Samoyeds in Kola Peninsula and the White sea region and also between Finns and Saamis, it should be the first thing to be checked before the supposed Chinese-Finnish connection. Unfortunately Saamis are not willingly giving samples to check them. IMHO this East Asia connection is pure faily tale when looking to the known history.Maurihttps://www.blogger.com/profile/03670078523265515878noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-4052080620584161892011-04-27T10:05:11.142+03:002011-04-27T10:05:11.142+03:00@pconroy
"You need to go back and look more ...@pconroy<br /><br />"You need to go back and look more closely at the Admixture_11.png image."<br /><br />I did and I see the the average NE component is Ireland is more than 1/3 the NE of Norway. <br /><br />If you think most the NE component in Ireland came from the Viking that would require well over 15% Viking admixture in Ireland. In fact it looks like it would require about 1/3 Viking admixture or more...<br /><br />There is no way that could be feasible.<br /><br />"My advice to you is to read the literature, and study the data -not reject a proposal based on a guess?!"<br /><br />Cause the literature really suggests there is that much Viking admixture in Ireland...<br /><br />Btw, it would be fine if you wanted to argue the the NE component in Ireland comes from Scandinavian but to attribute it to the historical Vikings should be wrong.princenuadhahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02165977957244158593noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-55408625753999199922011-04-27T00:15:00.258+03:002011-04-27T00:15:00.258+03:00"empty"&cold&poorly fertile Step..."empty"&cold&poorly fertile Steppic caspian region as being the origin of the peopling of overcrowded agricultural&warm&fertile India is a very very low possibility.<br />W asian/NE european ratios amongst indo-iranians is:<br />around 8 amongst iranians <br />around 4 amongst pakistanis <br />around 3 amongst indo-aryans <br />around 2 amongst soghdians (i.e uzbeks minus east asian).<br /><br />The fact that the ratio is so unstable could be a clue (besides the absence of NE amongst archaic IE speaking Armenians who belong to the aryano-armeno-greek sub-group of IE) that NE european component is connected (as dienekes stated) with a secondary (probably R1a1a linked) IE ization of europoid folks in northern caucasus by "armenian" migrants in their way to india (probably via 2 roads: one via iran=>west iranic, one via caucasus=>east iranic, then in Bactria there was the devloppement of dardic and indic, note that iranic is way more diverse than indic)<br />As for indo-iranian being purest IE (still there are at least 4% non IE vocabulary in II) point please see the explanation(s) and the possible consequences of that please see the paper below<br /><br />http://koenraadelst.bharatvani.org/articles/urheimat.pdfpiertrinkhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08397246383625658816noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-80276808698927225082011-04-26T13:16:07.712+03:002011-04-26T13:16:07.712+03:00Jaska,
So, if there really is some Asian compone...Jaska, <br /><br /><i>So, if there really is some Asian component in Finns, it might have nothing to do with the Uralic language.</i><br /><br />Except for the location. Looking at more recent pre-historic and historic patterns, a putative W/SW Uralic homeland of Finno-Ugric would likely have had extensive contact with East Asians over the millennia before or during language and population formation.<br /><br /><i>Proto-Indo-Iranian (= Proto-Aryan) was spoken in the North-Caspian steppes, as there are Pre-Aryan, Proto-Aryan, Proto-Iranian and possibly even Proto-Indo-Aryan loanwords in the Uralic languages. Balkan is out of question.</i><br /><br />I agree with you 100% - this is pretty much undisputed also because, conversely, the earliest Indo-Iranian languages are exactly the ones that are extremely close to PIE with almost no external impact [that would be expected for a more southerly, or Anatolian location].<br /><br />Another word to clines and dates: Clines (gradients) are a reality - but don't by themselves offer any additional information or insight. As to (speculative) date tags, an alternative interpretation would be that for millennia after introduction of agriculture to Europe, things got mixed around so much that North European, now, just means <i>"that mixed population"</i> perhaps 3,000 years ago. <br />A valid hypothesis - but in my opinion completely discredited by existing data: by the facts that, after all, original source populations are still easily identifiable, and because the today "virgin" (somewhat un-admixed) populations like the Basque and NE Europe make more sense if admixture took place very recently. Which is at least partially supported by the presence of of huge intra-population differences concerning the degree of admixture.eurologisthttps://www.blogger.com/profile/03440019181278830033noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-80572506648053775162011-04-26T11:05:36.772+03:002011-04-26T11:05:36.772+03:00@princenuadha,
You need to go back and look more ...@princenuadha,<br /><br />You need to go back and look more closely at the Admixture_11.png image.<br />Then you will see that the main difference between British_D and Irish_D is more Sardinian in the British - looks like double the amount - and very slightly more NE European in the British also, with the Irish having more NW European.<br /><br />Contrast that with the Norwegian_D, who have about 3 times the NE European than the Irish and about 2 times more than the British, and have NO West Asian, and about 1/2 the Sardinian of the Irish and 1/3 of the British.<br /><br />As I said earlier, my father clusters nearer to the Scandinavians on every analysis, also he has 5 AF/1 RF (Trondheim) matches in Norway, 2 AF in Sweden, 1 AF in Denmark, 2 AF/1 RF (Oulu) in Finland, 9 AF/2 RF (Pskov, St Petersburg) in Russia.<br /><br />My father also suffers from Viking Hand - Dupuytren's Contracture - Dupuytren's and so clearly has Viking admixture and most likely Norwegian Viking admixture.<br /><br />All of Ireland's major urban centers were founded by Vikings, more Viking blood came in the form of the Normans, still more in terms of the Gallowglass (mixed Viking/Celtic mercenaries from the Hebridies and surrounding areas, which were part of the Kingdom of Norway till the Middle Ages.<br /><br />My advice to you is to read the literature, and study the data - not reject a proposal based on a guess?!pconroyhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/10312469574812832771noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-9263048202197142011-04-26T10:50:37.417+03:002011-04-26T10:50:37.417+03:00I would say that the both the light green(SW Asian...<i> I would say that the both the light green(SW Asian) and dark green(W Asian) components neatly associate with the Neolithic expansion to Europe--Mediterranean via Cyprus, S Italy, C Italy, Tuscany and the Greek/Balkan painted pottery and Central European LBK.</i><br /><br />It's possible, unfortunately these components don't come with dates.<br /><br />SPeaking of archaeological correlations, I find the possibility of multiple waves of colonization, some early ones from the Levant, some later ones from Anatolia to be intriguing<br /><br />http://www.plosone.org/article/info:doi/10.1371/journal.pone.0006747<br /><br />A wave of aceramic farmers from the Levant would bring some "SW Asian", but it is only the Anatolian thrust that seems to have spread further into Europe.Dienekeshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02082684850093948970noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-20998459262485976932011-04-26T10:41:55.764+03:002011-04-26T10:41:55.764+03:00If indo-iranians migrated from the balkans, how wo...<i>If indo-iranians migrated from the balkans, how would you explain the absence of the south european (i.e mediterranean) component (as well as typical balkanian YDNA-especially the I hg-) in India?</i><br /><br />I keep all options on the table. If you notice, Romania has about 1/4 "Sardinian", but when did it get it? Some of it might be related to movements from Italy. Also, there is a weak "Sardinian" component in South Asia. Again, when it did get there? It could be early, or it could be Greek. So, I'm not that comfortable at excluding the Balkans as a potential source just yet, although I find a West Asian source more economical.<br /><br />It has to do with the deep phylogeny of Indo-European as well. The West Asian option becomes more attractive if there is an early split of Indo-Iranian<br /><br />http://dienekes.blogspot.com/2011/04/ryder-and-nicholls-proto-indo-european.htmlDienekeshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02082684850093948970noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-59930812260213065402011-04-26T07:51:56.338+03:002011-04-26T07:51:56.338+03:00@pconroy
You really think the NE component in Ire...@pconroy<br /><br />You really think the NE component in Ireland is largely the result of the Vikings? <br /><br />An average of 7% is way too high to be mostly from Viking occupation. The most likely, and really the only feasible way, for that to have happened is if there was a huge amount of Vikings settling Ireland. But historically that didn't happen. <br /><br />I've haven't seen genetic studies on the estimated Viking admixture in Ireland but it would surely not be above 15% and my guess is that it would be at about 1% - 5%princenuadhahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02165977957244158593noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-16419823909966847292011-04-25T15:22:04.394+03:002011-04-25T15:22:04.394+03:00Dienekes:
“So, Finns appear to (i) have a substrat...Dienekes:<br />“So, Finns appear to (i) have a substratum similar to Balto-Slavs, (ii) to be influenced by Scandinavians, and (iii) with a balance of East Eurasian elements (5.8% at this analysis) preserving the legacy of their linguistic ancestors from the east. At present it is difficult to determine how much of the NE European component in Finns is due to their eastern ancestors who were presumably mixed Caucasoid/Mongoloid long before they arrived in the Baltic, and how much was absorbed in situ.”<br /><br />Nowadays the best argued view is that Proto-Uralic was spoken in Europe, not in Asia. It is still possible that Pre-Proto-Uralic was spoken in Asia, but it is far from sure. So, if there really is some Asian component in Finns, it might have nothing to do with the Uralic language. <br /><br />Dienekes:<br />“I propose that a palimpsest of population movements has brought such elements into the interior of Asia: the migration of the early Indo-Iranians from West Asia or the Balkans with a balanced NE/NW ratio”<br /><br />Proto-Indo-Iranian (= Proto-Aryan) was spoken in the North-Caspian steppes, as there are Pre-Aryan, Proto-Aryan, Proto-Iranian and possibly even Proto-Indo-Aryan loanwords in the Uralic languages. Balkan is out of question.Jaakko Häkkinenhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/03088022045546791438noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-40643935087179992422011-04-25T15:19:15.391+03:002011-04-25T15:19:15.391+03:00mr rafael
that is unlikely because the sw asian/w ...mr rafael<br />that is unlikely because the sw asian/w asian ratio amongst italians doe not match the spanish one<br />mr bmdriver<br />that is unlikely because the sw asian/s asian ratio in india (but also even in pakistan and central asia) does not match the one in europe besides the lack in europe of typical indian mt DNApiertrinkhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08397246383625658816noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7785493.post-25432636259761475282011-04-25T12:14:37.030+03:002011-04-25T12:14:37.030+03:00"It is becoming more likely all of Europe suf..."It is becoming more likely all of Europe suffered near complete population replacement."<br /><br />I don't see why you conclude this? Nothing in your results says anything of the sort to me.Anonymoushttps://www.blogger.com/profile/11000684388615334278noreply@blogger.com